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Anil Kumar Petitioner v. Registrar General High Court Of Delhi

Delhi High Court
Sep 30, 2016
Smart Summary (Beta)

Structured Summary of the Opinion (Pradeep Nandrajog, J.)

Factual and Procedural Background

On December 18, 2015 the Delhi High Court invited applications to fill nine vacancies in the Delhi Higher Judicial Service by holding the Delhi Higher Judicial Examination-2015. The advertisement disclosed that the examination would be in two successive stages: (i) an objective-type (preliminary) exam with 25% negative marking for selection to the main examination; and (ii) a descriptive examination. The nine vacancies included three general category posts, two reserved for Scheduled Castes and four reserved for Scheduled Tribes.

The preliminary (objective) examination was held on April 3, 2016. On April 8, 2016 the Court uploaded model answer keys on its website and invited objections. Many candidates filed objections to several questions. The result was declared on August 26, 2016, and the website uploaded that all objections were rejected.

Three writ petitions (W.P.(C) Nos. 7863/2016, 8212/2016 and 8629/2016) were filed challenging answers to certain objective questions. In total answers to 18 questions (or the questions themselves) had been attacked in these petitions, but during the hearing the petitioners gave up challenge to nine of those questions, leaving eight questions in issue for the Court to decide.

Legal Issues Presented

  1. Whether the preliminary answer key and specific answer options to certain objective questions (8 questions remaining in issue) were correct and/or should be corrected or deleted.
  2. Whether a challenge to a question is maintainable where no objection was filed when the answer key was uploaded (application of Salil Maheshwari v. High Court of Delhi).
  3. For each challenged question, the legal issue posed by the question as set out in the complaint (examples include: intestate succession language/interpretation; property rights of a child born of a voidable marriage; whether celebratory firing amounts to murder or culpable homicide not amounting to murder; jurisdiction and law applicable to dishonour of a cheque made payable abroad; interpretation of temporal reference in an award question; effect of a court's mistake in a summary suit under Order 37 CPC; whether successive adverse possession by unrelated trespassers can be aggregated to defeat limitation).
  4. Whether, on deletion of a question, candidates should be awarded full marks for that question and whether the negative marking deduction (0.5 marks per wrong answer) should be restored if it had been applied.

Arguments of the Parties

Petitioners' Arguments

  • On Question 1: The sentence construction makes the phrase "two unmarried daughters and a son" refer to the wife's children from an earlier marriage, and therefore the answer key's option 2 (as provided) was wrong.
  • On Question 2: The petitioners relied on Revanasiddappa v. Mallikarjun (2011) and argued accordingly about rights of a child of a marriage voidable under Section 12 of the Hindu Marriage Act vis-à-vis ancestral property.
  • On Question 3: Petitioners argued that celebratory firing without intention to kill leads to culpable homicide not amounting to murder (option 3), relying on Kunwar Pal v. State of Uttrakhand (2014) and other authorities.
  • On Question 4: Petitioners contended that option 2 (proceed under Section 138 Negotiable Instruments Act) was also available and therefore both options might be correct.
  • On Question 5: Petitioners argued that the plain reading of the question asked who won the Oscar in the year 2015 (answer should be Julianne Moore), not who won for a film released in 2015, and therefore the answer key's option was incorrect.
  • On Question 6: Petitioners argued the question does not indicate that a mistake was committed by the Court in issuing ordinary summons and therefore option 3 (that the Court will correct its mistake) would not necessarily be the correct answer.
  • On Question 7: Petitioners relied on the authorities relating to adverse possession (including Gurbinder Singh v. Lal Singh) and argued about whether successive periods of adverse possession by different persons could be aggregated.
  • On Question 8: Petitioners pointed to conflicting decisions and argued that the issue did not have a definite answer; reference was made to earlier High Court decisions (including Gunjan Sinha Jain) showing the law was fluid.

Respondent (High Court)'s Position / Replies

  • On Question 1: The Court (respondent) relied on plain reading alternatives and candidate instructions ("choose the most appropriate option") to justify the answer key option.
  • On Question 2: The High Court treated the applicable Supreme Court decision as not having overruled existing law and maintained the answer 'False'.
  • On Question 3: The High Court maintained the position reflected in the answer key (that the act amounted to murder) but the Court under the present opinion considered and applied precedents to reach a different conclusion.
  • On Question 4: The High Court relied on Section 135 of the Negotiable Instruments Act and the illustration to it to contend that the law of the place where the instrument is payable governs dishonour and notice, supporting option 1 as correct.
  • On Question 5: The High Court explained that the question referred to the Oscar award for a movie released in 2015 (awards are given the following year) — a different reading from the petitioners' plain-year reading.
  • On Question 6: The High Court recognized that a mistake by a Court must be rectified if it injures a party and that the substantive right to have a suit tried under Order 37 CPC cannot be taken away by a court's mistake.
  • On Question 8: The High Court relied on the reasoning of an earlier Coordinate Bench (Gunjan Sinha Jain) which held the law was not definitive and directed deletion of the question in that case; the present Court followed that reasoning.

Table of Precedents Cited

Precedent Rule or Principle Cited For Application by the Court
Kanpur University v. Sameer Gupta, (1983) 4 SCC 309 Scope of judicial review of an answer key: answer key presumed correct; only demonstrably wrong answers may be judicially reviewed; avoid inferential/rationalizing overturns. Applied as guiding principle that key answers are to be assumed correct unless clearly shown wrong; used as foundation for assessing challenges to the answer key.
Salil Maheshwari v. High Court of Delhi (W.P.(C) No. 4976/2014, Order dated September 05, 2004) Reflected Kanpur University's propositions: presumption of correctness of key, demonstrably wrong standard, and that an incorrect key prevents penalizing candidates. Applied to hold that challenge to one question (question No. 102 in booklet series 'P') was not maintainable because no objection had been filed when the key was uploaded.
Manish Ujwal v. Maharishi Dayanand Saraswati University, (2005) 13 SCC 744 Reiterated limits on judicial review of answer keys (as per Kanpur University). Noted as supporting authority for the standard applied to review of answer keys.
DPS Chawla v. Union of India, 184 (2011) DLT 96 Reiteration of the Kanpur University position on answer keys. Referenced as part of the line of authorities limiting review of answer keys.
Revanasiddappa v. Mallikarjun, (2011) 11 SCC 1 Dealt with sub-section 3 of Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act and consequences for property rights of children of certain void/annulled marriages. The Court noted this decision and concluded it did not overrule existing law; relied on it to hold the correct answer to Question 2 was 'False'.
Kunwar Pal v. State of Uttrakhand, 2014 Cri.L.J 6 Held that celebratory firing causing death could be culpable homicide not amounting to murder if intention to kill cannot be attributed but knowledge of likelihood of causing death exists. Relied upon by petitioners; Court considered it along with other decisions in concluding that the correct answer to Question 3 is culpable homicide not amounting to murder (option 3).
Nehru Jain v. State NCT of Delhi, 2005 (79) DRJ 329 Division Bench decision discussing Illustration D to Section 300 IPC and distinguishing situations that attract murder from those attracting culpable homicide. Used alongside other Division Bench authority to support conclusion that Question 3 should be answered as culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
State v. Mukesh Kumar Gupta, 168 (2010) DLT 139 (DB) Division Bench decision taking a view similar to Nehru Jain regarding firing and requisite incriminating circumstances for murder. Applied to conclude that absent close proximate distance and evidence of firing directed to crowd, question facts do not make offence murder; hence option 3 correct for Question 3.
Gurbinder Singh v. Lal Singh, AIR 1965 SC 1553 Addresses aggregation of successive adverse possession and the requirement of a jural relationship for a defendant to rely upon prior possession under Article 144 (Limitation Act 1908). Applied to Question 7: held that B cannot claim benefit of C's adverse possession unless there was a jural relationship; therefore option 1 is correct.
Vennam Ramiah v. Kusru Kotamma, AIR 1922 Mad 59 Discussed Article 142 (Limitation Act 1908) and successive trespasses; distinguished from Article 144 (Limitation Act 1908). Referred to in explaining distinctions between Article 142 and Article 144 and in analysing Gurbinder Singh; used to explain why successive independent trespassers do not help in certain limitation computations.
Agency Company v. Short, (1888) 13 AC 793 — Wills v. Earl, (1889) 2 Ch. 454 English decisions referenced in the context of adverse possession and succession/continuity of trespass. Discussed in the historical exposition forming part of the Court's consideration of the law on adverse possession and limitation.
Gunjan Sinha Jain v. Registrar General, High Court of Delhi, 188 (2012) DLT 627 Considered a similarly worded territorial-jurisdiction question; concluded the position in law was fluid and that no definitive answer could be given at that time. The Court followed the reasoning of that Coordinate Bench and directed deletion of the instant Question 8, with consequent marking adjustments.

Court's Reasoning and Analysis

The Court proceeded question by question, applying established principles governing review of answer keys and specific legal principles relevant to each question. The Court first applied the high threshold for disturbing an answer key — the key must be demonstrably wrong and not subject to overturn by inferential reasoning — citing Kanpur University and subsequent Delhi High Court and Supreme Court authorities.

Preliminary maintainability point: One challenged question (question No.102 in booklet series 'P') was held to be not maintainable because no objection was filed when the key was uploaded; the Court applied Salil Maheshwari to sustain that position.

Question-by-question analysis (as set out in the opinion)

Question 1 (Intestate succession / sentence construction)

The petitioners' objection relied on a particular grammatical reading which would make the phrase "two unmarried daughters and a son" refer to the wife's children from an earlier marriage, leaving no option matching that reading. The Court demonstrated two reasonable readings of the sentence. Given the objective-type format and the instruction to choose the "most appropriate option," the Court held that the correct reading is the one where "a son of his wife from an earlier marriage" attaches to "son" only (not to "two unmarried daughters and a son"), and therefore the answer key's option (option 2) is correct. The Court emphasized that candidate instructions (choose the most appropriate option) resolve ordinary imperfections in drafting.

Question 2 (Child of a marriage voidable under Section 12 HMA — rights in ancestral property)

The petitioners relied upon Revanasiddappa. The Court observed that Revanasiddappa did not overrule existing law on the point and therefore accepted the answer key's position that the statement is "False" (i.e., the child as described does not have the asserted right in ancestral property). The Court thus held option "False" correct.

Question 3 (Celebratory firing causing death — murder vs culpable homicide)

The petitioners cited Kunwar Pal which held that celebratory firing that results in death may amount to culpable homicide not amounting to murder because intention to kill may be absent though knowledge of likelihood may exist. The Court also considered Division Bench decisions of this Court (Nehru Jain; State v. Mukesh Kumar Gupta) which distinguished firing at close proximate distance or firing directed to a crowd (illustration D of Section 300 IPC) from celebratory firing usually occurring at some distance or without evidence of targeting the crowd. Applying these authorities, the Court found that the question did not allege facts sufficient to make the offence murder; accordingly the correct answer is option 3 (culpable homicide not amounting to murder), and the answer key was corrected to reflect option 3.

Question 4 (Dishonour of cheque drawn on SBI Dubai — applicable law)

The Court relied on Section 135 of the Negotiable Instruments Act and its illustration, which state that when a negotiable instrument is made payable at a different place from where it is made or endorsed, the law of the place where it is made payable determines what constitutes dishonour and what notice of dishonour is sufficient. Applying that provision and the illustration, the Court held option 1 (proceed according to law applicable in Dubai) to be the correct answer and rejected the contention that option 2 (Section 138 NI Act procedure) also made the answer ambiguous.

Question 5 (Who won the Oscar Award for Best Actor in a Lead Female Role in 2015?)

Petitioners argued the plain reading meant "who won the Oscar in the year 2015." The High Court had argued the question concerned the movie released in 2015 (awards are given the following year). The Court applied the grammatical principle that where a plain grammatical construction yields no absurdity it must be preferred. It concluded the plain reading sought the winner in the year 2015, and none of the options matched that plain construction. Consequently the Court held that none of the options is correct, ordered deletion of the question, and directed marking consequences: two marks to be awarded to all candidates for that question and restoration of any 0.5 negative-mark deduction where applicable.

Question 6 (Summary suit under Order 37 CPC — court issued ordinary summons by mistake)

The Court noted the well-established principle that a mistake by a court that causes injury must be rectified, and that a plaintiff's substantive right to have a suit tried under Order 37 CPC cannot be divested by a court's mistake. The question itself recorded that the suit was filed under Order 37 but ordinary summons were issued; the plaintiff applied to correct the mistake. The Court therefore held that the correct answer is that the Court will correct its mistake by issuing fresh summons under Order 37 (option 3).

Question 7 (Adverse possession and aggregation of possession by prior possessor 'C')

The Court reviewed Gurbinder Singh v. Lal Singh and the discussion distinguishing Articles 142 and 144 of the Limitation Act (and their successors, Article 64/65 of the Limitation Act, 1963). The key principle is that under Article 144 (limitation for actions based on prescription by a defendant), the defendant may rely only on his own possession or that of someone through whom he claims (a jural relationship). Possession by an independent trespasser cannot be aggregated to give the defendant the requisite period of adverse possession. Applying this to the question, the Court held the correct answer is option 1: B cannot claim benefit of C's period since the question does not state B acquired possession under a jural relationship with C.

Question 8 (Territorial jurisdiction preliminary issue — sale agreement with builder/developer)

The Court noted a Coordinate Bench decision (Gunjan Sinha Jain) which had considered a similarly worded question, observed conflicting decisions, and concluded the legal position was fluid and not definitive. Incorporating that reasoning, which had attained finality, this Court directed deletion of the question and ordered the same marking consequences as for Question 5 (two marks to all candidates and restoration of any 0.5 negative-mark deduction).

After considering the issues above, the Court issued specific directions to correct the answer key for certain questions, to delete others with consequential marking adjustments, and disposed of the civil miscellaneous applications for stay of the consequent written examination as infructuous because the writ petitions had been decided.

Holding and Implications

The Court's dispositive directions are set out and summarized below. The core ruling is emphasized.

Core ruling: The writ petitions were disposed of with specific corrections and deletions to the preliminary answer key and consequential marking directions; no costs were awarded.

  • Answer key corrected: Question 3 (as analysed above) — the answer key is corrected to show option No. 3 (culpable homicide not amounting to murder) as the correct answer.
  • Question deleted: Question 5 is deleted. Consequence: all candidates to be awarded two marks for the deleted question; if any candidate had negative marking reduced the score by 0.5 for a wrong attempt on that question, that deduction is to be removed.
  • Answer key corrected: Question 7 is corrected to show option No. 1 as the correct answer (B cannot rely on C's period of adverse possession absent a jural relationship).
  • Question deleted: Question 8 is deleted. Consequence: same marking adjustments as for Question 5 (two marks awarded to all candidates and removal of any 0.5 negative-mark deduction).
  • No costs were ordered.
  • The civil miscellaneous applications praying for stay of the ensuing written examination (Delhi Higher Judicial Service Examination-2015) were disposed of as infructuous because the writ petitions were decided.

Implication note: The decision implemented adjustments to the answer key and marking for the examination candidates and followed existing precedents on review of answer keys and specific legal points (adverse possession, criminal liability for celebratory firing, negotiable instruments payable abroad, and correction of court mistakes). The opinion does not purport to lay down any novel legal principle beyond the application and clarification of existing authorities referenced in the judgment.

Disposition and Case Identifiers

W.P.(C) Nos. 7863/2016, 8212/2016 and 8629/2016 — petitions disposed in part as described above; CM Nos. 32525/2016 in W.P.(C) No. 7863/2016 and 34038/2016 in W.P.(C) No. 8212/2016.

Show all summary ...

W.P.(C) No.8629/2016 & conn.matters Page 1 of 23

* IN THE HIGH COURT OF DELHI AT NEW DELHI

% Judgment Reserved On : September 28, 2016 Judgment Delivered On : September 30, 2016 + W.P.(C) 8629/2016

ANIL KUMAR ..... Petitioner Represented by: Mr.Amit Yadav, Advocate with Mr.Kaushal Narayan Mishra,

Advocate

versus

REGISTRAR GENERAL HIGH COURT OF DELHI ..... Respondent Represented by: Mr.Rajiv Bansal, Advocate with Mr.Chetan Lokur, Mr.Anurag

Tripathi, Ms.Tanya Jolly and

Mr.Nitish Chaudhary, Advocates

W.P.(C) 7863/2016

HARGURVARINDER SINGH JAGGI ..... Petitioner Represented by: Mr.Pradeep Bakshi, Advocate with Mr.Hardik Luthra, Advocate

versus

REGISTRAR GENERAL, HIGH COURT OF DELHI ..... Respondent Represented by: Mr.Rajiv Bansal, Advocate with Mr.Chetan Lokur, Mr.Anurag

Tripathi, Ms.Tanya Jolly and

Mr.Nitish Chaudhary, Advocates

W.P.(C) 8212/2016

DHARMENDER RANA AND ORS. ..... Petitioners

Represented by: Mr.D.K.Sharma, Advocate with Mr.Abhinav Sharma, Advocate

1

versus

HIGH COURT OF DELHI THR REGISTRAR

GENERAL HIGH COURT OF DELHI ..... Respondent Represented by: Mr.Rajiv Bansal, Advocate with Mr.Chetan Lokur, Mr.Anurag

Tripathi, Ms.Tanya Jolly and

Mr.Nitish Chaudhary, Advocates

CORAM:

HON'BLE MR. JUSTICE PRADEEP NANDRAJOG HON'BLE MS. JUSTICE PRATIBHA RANI

PRADEEP NANDRAJOG, J.

1. On December 18, 2015 the Delhi High Court invited applications from eligible candidates to fill up 9 vacancies by direct recruitment to the Delhi Higher Judicial Service by holding the Delhi Higher Judicial Examination-2015. The advertisement inviting applications disclosed to the eligible candidates that the examination would be in two successive stages : (i) an objective type with 25% negative marking for selection to the main examination; and (ii) a descriptive examination. Three vacancies were in the general category. Two were reserved for members of the scheduled castes and four were reserved for the members of the scheduled tribes.

2. The objective type (preliminary examination) was conducted on April 03, 2016. There were 125 questions which had to be answered. On April 08, 2016 the Delhi High Court put on its website the model answer keys simultaneously inviting objections, if any, to the model answers uploaded on the website. Many candidates filed objections to a host of

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questions. The result was declared on August 26, 2016 and simultaneously it was uploaded on the website that all objections were rejected.

3. Above captioned three writ petitions were filed, with there being a sole petitioner in W.P.(C) No.7863/2016 and W.P.(C) No.8629/2016 and six writ petitioners in W.P.(C) No.8212/2016.

4. Answers to 18 questions or questions by themselves have been attacked in the three captioned petitions, but during hearing of the writ petitions, as recorded in the order dated September 28, 2016, challenge to 9 questions was given up.

5. Out of the 9 questions which were under challenge, qua one question no objection was filed when the answer key was uploaded on the website of this Court on April 08, 2016 calling upon the eligible candidates, who had given the examination, to file objections if they so desire, and therefore in view of the decision dated September 05, 2004 in W.P.(C) No.4976/2014 Salil Mahenshwari Vs. High Court of Delhi & Anr. by a Division Bench of this Court we hold that challenge to said question (which would be question No.102 in booklet series „P") is not maintainable. Thus we decide the issue pertaining to the 8 questions which survive.

6. We note the 8 questions and simultaneously note the options provided in the question booklet. The correct answer as per the answer key is put in bold. The same would be:-

"Q.1 „A", a Hindu, on, 2ndJanuary, 2016 dies intestate leaving a wife, two unmarried daughters and a son of his wife from an earlier marriage. His estate will be inherited.

1. Equally, with the wife, the two unmarried daughters and the son of the wife from an earlier marriage each getting 1/4thshare.

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2. In three parts, with the wife and the two unmarried daughters getting 1/3rd share each and the son of the wife from earlier marriage not getting a share.

3. Only by the son of the wife from the earlier marriage, with the wife having a right of maintenance and the two unmarried daughters having a right of maintenance and marriage expenses, only.

4. Only by the wife and the son of the wife from an earlier marriage equally with the two unmarried daughters having only a right of marriage expenses and maintenance. Q.2 A child born of a marriage which is voidable under Section 12 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 but before passing of a decree declaring it as a nullity has a share not only in the properties of his father but will also have a share out of share of his father in the ancestral properties.

1. True

2. False

Q.3 A fires a gun at a wedding reception leading to the death of one of the guests, whom he did not intend to hurt

1. A has committed murder

2. A did not intend killing the guest and thus has committed no offence

3. A has committed culpable homicide not amounting to murder

4. None of the above

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Q.4 Ramesh who has an account with a branch of the State Bank of Indian in Dubai draws a cheque on SBI Dubai in favour of Abdullah, a resident of Dubai. The cheque is signed in Kochi and handed over to Abdullah in Kochi. The cheque when presented by Abdullah through his bank to the SBI Dubai is dishonoured. The remedy available to Abdullah is:

1. To proceed against Ramesh in accordance with the law applicable in Dubai as regards dishonoured cheques.

2. To follow the procedure under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881.

3. To approach the Government of India for permission to file a complaint against Ramesh.

4. To proceed against the State Bank of India in the court of the magistrate in India within whose jurisdiction its head office located.

Q.5 The winner of the Oscar Award for Best Actor in a Lead Female Role in 2015 is:

1. Cate Blanchett

2. Jennifer Lawrence

3. Helen Mirren

4. Brie Larson

Q.6 Plaintiff files a suit under Order 37 of CPC. The Court issues ordinary summons for framing of issues and the said summons along with copy of the plaint are served on the defendant and the defendant files a written statement on the date for which summons were issued. The plaintiff realising the mistake committed by the Court applies for summons under Order 37 CPC to be issued.

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1. The written statement having been filed, the suit will be tried as an ordinary suit.

2. The defendant having along with the summons for framing of issues received the copy of the plaint showing it to be under Order 37 of CPC and having within the prescribed time not entered appearance, the suit will be decreed.

3. The Court will correct its mistake by issuing fresh summons under Order 37 of CPC.

4. The plaint will be rejected. Q.7 Suit filed by „A" for recovery of possession of immovable property is defended by „B" contending that though he was in adverse possession of immovable property for a period of five years only prior to the institution of the suit but before the said five years „C" was in adverse possession of the property to the knowledge of „A" for a period of 20 years and thus the suit filed after 25 years of first „C" and then „B" being in adverse possession of the property was barred by time.

1. B" is not entitled to claim the benefit of the period for which „C" was in adverse possession and the suit is within time.

2. 'B' is entitled to the benefit of the period for which 'C' was in adverse possession and the suit is barred by time.

Q.8. „A" enters into an Agreement at Delhi with a builder/developer company having registered office at Delhi for purchase of a flat in a multi-storied residential building under construction at Gurgaon and makes payment of 50% of the agreed construction linked sale consideration to the builder/developer at Delhi and the builder/developer deals with „A" from its registered office at Delhi. Upon disputes arising „A" institutes a suit for specific performance of the Agreement against the builder/developer in the Courts at Delhi. The builder/developer contends that the Courts at Delhi have no territorial jurisdiction and that its Branch Office at Gurgaon is

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implementing the said project and its registered office at Delhi dealt with „A" only because „A" was at Delhi and on „A"s request. A preliminary issue to the said effect is framed.

1. The Courts at Delhi have territorial jurisdiction and the preliminary issue will be decided in favour of „A".

2. The Courts at Delhi do not have territorial jurisdiction and the preliminary issue will be decided in favour of builder/developer and plaint returned to 'A' for filing in the Court of appropriate territorial jurisdiction.

3. The issue cannot be decided as a preliminary issue and requires evidence to be led."

7. Before dealing with the objections and the reasons in support thereof it would be useful to note the guiding principles on which objections to the answer key or the question itself need to be tested.

8. In the decision reported as (1983) 4 SCC 309 Kanpur University Vs. Sameer Gupta, laying down the scope of judicial review pertaining to an answer key, the Supreme Court had observed as under:-

"We agree that the key answer should be assumed to be correct unless it is proved to be wrong and that it should not be held to be wrong by an inferential process of reasoning or by a process of rationalization. It must be clearly demonstrated to be wrong, that is to say, it must be such as no reasonable body of men well-versed in the particular subject would regard as correct. The contention of the University is falsified in this case by a large number of acknowledged text books, which are commonly read by students in U.P. Those text-books leave no room for doubt that the answer given by the students is correct and the key answer is incorrect.

17. ….Certain books are prescribed for the Intermediate Board Examination and such knowledge of the subjects as the students have is derived from what is contained in those text-

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books. Those text-books support the case of the students fully. If this were a case of doubt, we would have unquestionably preferred the key answer. But if the matter is beyond the realm of doubt, it would be unfair to penalize the students for not giving an answer which accords with the key answer, that is to say, with an answer which is demonstrated to be wrong."

9. In its decision dated September 05, 2004 W.P.(C) No.4976/2014 Salil Maheshwari Vs. High Court of Delhi & Anr., reflecting upon the aforesaid observations of the Supreme Court in Kanpur University"s case (supra), in paragraph 12 it was held as under:-

"Three propositions of law emerge from Kanpur University (supra), on the permissible extent of judicial review of an answer key. First, the answer key must be presumed to be correct and must be followed, even in the face of a mere doubt, second, only if a key answer is demonstrably wrong, in the opinion of a reasonable body of persons well-versed in the subject, it may be subject to judicial review, and third, if the answer key is incorrect beyond doubt, then a candidate cannot be penalized for answers at variance with the key. This position was reiterated in Manish Ujwal and Ors. v. Maharishi Dayanand Saraswati University and Ors., (2005) 13 SCC 744 and DPS Chawla v. Union of India, 184 (2011) DLT 96."

10. Dealing with the first question objected to, as noted above the correct answer, as per the answer key to the first question, is the second option provided. The objection is to the sentence construction comprising the question. It was argued that a plain literal reading of the question would make it clear to the reader that „two unmarried daughters and a son" i.e. three persons, would be referable by birth to the wife from an earlier marriage and thus the second option, which is based on the understanding that the son of the wife was from the earlier marriage of

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the wife would be the wrong option because a reader of the question would not so understand the question.

11. The question reads : „A", a Hindu, on, 2nd January, 2016 dies intestate leaving a wife, two unmarried daughters and a son of his wife from an earlier marriage. His estate will be inherited.

12. To understand the objection we break the sentence into three parts by placing serial No.(i), (ii) and (iii). It would be : (i)„A", a Hindu, on, 2ndJanuary, 2016 dies intestate (ii)leaving a wife, (iii)two unmarried daughters and a son of his wife from an earlier marriage. His estate will be inherited.

13. Concededly this could be one way to read the sentence i.e. that „A"

was survived by a wife and two unmarried daughters and a son of his wife from an earlier marriage. So read, it would mean that the two daughters and the son were of the wife from an earlier marriage. If so understood the answer would be that only the wife inherits the estate. But this is not the option provided for in the answers.

14. The question could equally be read, and we give the breakup:

(i)„A", a Hindu, on, 2ndJanuary, 2016 dies intestate (ii)leaving a wife, (iii)two unmarried daughters (iv)and a son of his wife from an earlier marriage. His estate will be inherited.

15. If so read, the answer key which lists option „2" as the correct answer would be correct.

16. The instructions to the candidates guide : „Choose the most appropriate option and darken the circle completely, corresponding to (1), (2), (3) and (4) against the relevant question number." It is trite that if it is desired that the product must be an approximation it does not detract

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from the validity of the product. It is clear that the candidates were made aware that the answer was in the options provided and not outside. That is why the candidates were informed that they had to choose the most appropriate option. A question, as a formula is likely to suffer the defect of imperfectness - as all things human are, and therefore the instructions.

17. Given the instructions to the candidates i.e. to choose the most appropriate option; and given the four options to the question, the possible dilemma of a reader was easily resolvable by reading the question in the second manner illustrated by us herein above, for the reason if read in the first manner and there being no option available to be chosen, the second manner of understanding was the only possible meaning of the question.

18. Further, plain English language guides us that the phrase „of his wife from an earlier marriage" is to be read in conjunction with the word „son" immediately preceding the phrase and not with the words „two unmarried daughters and a son".

19. Challenge to the second question is premised not on the process of reasoning which was adopted for the first question. The challenge was with reference to the decision of the Supreme Court reported as 2011 (11) SCC 1 Revanasiddappa & Ors. vs. Mallikarjun & Ors..

20. The judgment relates to sub-section 3 of Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955. It notes five earlier judgments on the point; taking the view that the right of a child of a marriage which is null and void or which is annulled by a decree of nullity under Section 12 would be unaffected qua property of only the parents i.e. such a child would not have any right in the ancestral property in the hands of the father. The

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judgment disagrees with the said line of reasoning and terminates with the opinion that the matter be placed before the Hon"ble Chief Justice of India for consideration of constituting a larger Bench.

21. The judgment in question does not overrule the existing law and thus we find that the second option i.e. the answer „False" is correct.

22. Pertaining to the third question, the answer key gives the answer that „A" has committed murder. The argument of the petitioners was that the correct answer would be that „A" has committed culpable homicide not amounting to murder i.e. option No.3 and for which the decision of the Supreme Court reported as 2014 Cri.L.J. 6 Kunwar Pal vs. State of Uttrakhand was cited. Said case was of using a gun while celebrating a marriage; a practice in some communities in India. At a marriage function a celebratory firing resulted in the death of one person. The Supreme Court held that whilst attributing intention had to be ruled out, the knowledge that the accused was likely to cause death could not be ruled out and that the offence would be culpable homicide not amounting to murder within the meaning of Section 304 Part II of the Penal Code.

23. We find that similar view as was taken by the Supreme Court was taken by two Division Benches of this Court. The decisions are reported as 2005 (79) DRJ 329 (DB) Nehru Jain Vs. State NCT of Delhi and 168(2010) DLT 139 (DB) 188 State Vs. Mukesh Kumar Gupta. The decision in Nehru Jain"s case (supra) focused on illustration „D"

appearing under Section 300 of the Penal Code which reads: A without any excuse fires a loaded cannon into a crowd of persons and kills one of them. A is guilty of murder, although he may not have had a premeditated design to kill any particular individual. The Division

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Bench contrasted the eminently dangerous activity with reference to the knowledge which could be attributed to the doer of the act and opined that analogy where a bullet was fired from a fire arm could not be made to a loaded cannon being fired into a crowd of persons. The decision held that unless there was evidence that the person who used the fire arm indiscriminately was at a close proximate distance from the crowd and the fire was directed towards the crowd in total disregard for the safety of those in the crowd, the knowledge attributable would be of the lesser degree and hence the offence would be punishable under Section 304 Part-II of the Penal Code. The decision guides that unless the incriminating circumstance of : (i) close proximate distance from the crowd and (ii) positive evidence of the fire being directed towards the crowd, was established the knowledge attributable of the lesser degree. The question at hand does not state facts contemplated by law to make the offence one of murder and thus qua the third question we conclude by holding that the correct answer is option 3 and not option 1.

24. As regards the challenge to the fourth question, Section 135 of the N.I.Act is a complete answer. The illustration to the Section by itself is a complete answer. The illustration reads : A bill of exchange drawn and endorsed in India, but accepted payable in France, is dishonoured. The endorsee causes it to be protested for such dishonor, and gives notice thereof in accordance with the law of France though not in accordance with the rules herein contained in respect of bills which are not foreign. The notice is sufficient. The main Section reads : Where a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque is made payable in a different place from that in which it is made or endorsed, the law of the place where it is made

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payable determines what constitutes dishonor and what notice of dishonor is sufficient.

25. Option „1" is the correct answer and the argument that even option „2" is available and therefore both option „1"and „2" would be the correct answer is rejected.

26. The fifth question objected to is that Brie Larson was the winner of the Oscar Award for best actor in lead female role in the year 2016 and that Julianne Moore won the Oscar Award for best actor in lead female role in the year 2015. The basis of the argument was that a plain reading of the question would mean as to who won the Oscar Award for best actor in a lead female role in the year 2015.

27. The response of the Delhi High Court is that the question concerns the winner of the Oscar Award in the lead female role for a movie which was released in the year 2015. It is urged that an award always succeeds an event and thus Oscar Awards for movies released in a year is announced in the next succeeding year.

28. It is trite that where a plain grammatical construction of a sentence results in no absurdity the sentence has to be constructed giving to it a plain meaning. A plain reading of the question would result in the understanding by the reader that the person posing the question wants to know as to who won the Oscar award for the best actor in lead female role in the year 2015 and not as to who won the Oscar award for the best actor in lead female role for the movies which were released in the year

2015.

29. Therefore, it is our compulsion to hold that none of the options provided is the correct answer, requiring the questions to be deleted with

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consequence to flow as per the instructions i.e. 2 marks to be given to all the candidates and if negative marking has reduced the score of a candidate by 0.5 marks, the said reduction to be taken away.

30. The challenge to the sixth question must fail in light of the known and recognized principles of law that a mistake by a Court if causes injury to a party has to be rectified and corrected by the Court.

31. The argument was that the question does not indicate that in the Summary Suit filed, by mistake the Court issued ordinary summons for settling the issues, and thus the third option stated to be the correct answer which proceeds on the assumption that the Court committed a mistake, would not be the correct answer.

32. It is trite that the right to have a suit tried under Order 37 of the Code of Civil Procedure is a substantive right and the plaintiff cannot be divested thereof owing to a mistake by the Court. That a mistake was committed by the Court is inherent in the question inasmuch as the question clearly records that the suit was filed under Order 37 of the Code of Civil Procedure and in spite thereof the Court issued ordinary summons for settling the issues and when this mistake committed by the Court was detected by the plaintiff he applied to the Court for taking corrective action.

33. The seventh question was debated in light of the decision of the Supreme Court reported as AIR 1965 SC 1553 Gurbinder Singh vs Lal Singh. We begin the discussion by noting that Article 64 of the Limitation Act, 1963 replaces Article 142 of the Limitation Act, 1908 and Article 65 of the Limitation Act, 1963 replaces Article 144 of the Limitation Act, 1908. The decision of the Supreme Court in Gurbinder

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Singh"s case (supra) makes a detailed reference to a decision of the Madras High Court reported as AIR 1922 Mad. 59 Vennam Ramiah vs. Kusru Kotamma & Ors. wherein Article 142 of the Limitation Act, 1908 was under consideration and the issue was whether the law declared in the judgment reported as (1888) 13 AC 793 Agency Company vs.Short was as propounded by Vennam Ramiah and what was the law declared in the decision reported as (1889) 2 Ch.454 Wills vs.Earl. The issue arose with reference to Article 142 of the Limitation Act, 1908 which prescribed that the time from which limitation commences is the date of dispossession. The contention of the appellant that where unlawful possession by a person was followed by unlawful possession by another person, there would be a deemed vesting of possession in the plaintiff when the person first in possession was no longer in possession and thus period of limitation would be reckoned from the date the second person came in possession. On facts it was a case of succession of possession by the defendant through the first person in possession. The Court held that for purposes of Article 142 of the Limitation Act, 1908 there was no deemed vacation of the property and in whatsoever capacity they may be claiming possession as long as there was continuous successive possession limitation would commence from the date of initial dispossession. The Madras High Court did not consider Article 144 of the Limitation Act, 1908 but the two English decisions relied upon concerned the law relating to adverse possession and had held that if a trespasser vacates a property the lawful owner has to take no steps and for purposes of computing the period of limitation the second trespasser would not be entitled to add to his period of trespass the previous period

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of trespass. But if it was a case of succession to possession by a subsequent trespasser of the first trespasser and if there was continuity in the possession the period would be reckoned from the initial trespass. The decision of the Supreme Court in Gurbinder Singh"s case related to Article 144 of the Limitation Act, 1908, and the Supreme Court distinguish the decision of the Madras High Court on the reasoning that said decision concerned Article 142 of the Limitation Act, 1908, but concerning Article 144 of the Limitation Act, 1908 held that if the defence was of acquiring title by prescription the defendant had to prove continuous, open and hostile possession with assertion of title to the property for a period of 12 years and that if there was succession the period of preceding possession could be taken benefit of by the defendant. The finding in paragraph 10 is the law declared and it reads as under:-

"No doubt, this is an inclusive definition but the gist of it is the existence of a jural relationship between different persons. There can be no jural relationship between two independent trespassers. Therefore, where a defendant in possession of property is sued by a person who has title to it but is out of possession what he has to show in defence is that he or anyone through whom he claims has been in possess in for more than the statutory period. An independent trespasser not being such a person the defendant is not entitled to take on the previous possession of that person to his own possession. In our opinion, therefore, the respondents" suit is within time and has been rightly decreed by the Courts below. We dismiss the appeal with costs."

34. To understand the law declared we need to picturise the entire backdrop facts of Gurbinder Singh case. The relevant facts were that late

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Raj Kaur was in possession of 851 kanal 18 marla of land situated in the former State of Faridkot, with 481 kanal and 7 marla being in her possession as occupancy tenant, of which the Raja of Faridkot was the landlord; and the remaining 370 kanal 11 marla being held by her as adna malik with the Raja of Faridkot being the aala malik. Raj Kaur had two daughters: (i) Prem Kaur and (ii) Mahan Kaur. Prem Kuar had a son Bakshi Singh. Mahan Kaur had two sons : (i) Lal Singh and (ii) Pratap Singh. In the year 1896, Raj Kaur adopted Bakshi Singh, and transferred possession of the entire 851 kanal and 18 marla land to him. In turn, Bakshi Singh transferred a part of the land to Pratap Singh. On February 09, 1916, the Court of Sub-Judge Faridkot, on a suit filed by the Raja of Faridkot invalidated the adoption of Bakshi Singh by Raj Kaur. Thereafter, after the death of Raj Kaur on August 14, 1930, the Raja of Faridkot instituted suits against Bakshi Singh and Pratap Singh for recovery of possession of the land, which suit was decreed on March 12, 1938. The Raja of Faridkot took possession of the land in October, 1938 and subsequently sold the land to Kehar Singh for consideration. Thereafter, Gurbinder Singh and Balbinder Singh obtained a decree for pre-emption of the land against Kehar Singh and consequently obtained possession of the land on June 22, 1950. But before that on October 20, 1948, Prem Kaur instituted a suit for possession of the land against Raja of Faridkot and Kehar Singh on the plea that she was the legal heir of Raj Kaur. Subsequently, Gurbinder Singh and Balbinder Singh were impleaded as parties to the suit while the Raja of Faridkot was deleted as a party. On February 17, 1950, Lal Singh filed a suit for possession of the land against Raja of Faridkot, Kehar Singh, Prem Kaur and Pratap Singh.

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In which suit Pratap Singh was transposed as a plaintiff. The Trial Court consolidated both the suits and rejected the claim of Prem Kaur. However, the Trial Court decreed half share in the property to Pratap Singh and Lal Singh. Prem Kaur on the one and Gurbinder and Balbinder Singh on the other, preferred separate appeals against the judgment and decree of the Trial Court. Pratap Singh and Lal Singh preferred cross- objections. The appeals and cross-objections were dismissed. Further appeals and cross-objections in the High Court were likewise dismissed. As a consequence, Gurbinder and Balbinder Singh preferred an appeal before the Supreme Court.

35. Issue before the Supreme Court was whether the suit filed by Lal Singh and Pratap Singh was barred by limitation and whether Gurbinder Singh and Balbinder Singh had acquired title by prescription. According to Gurbinder Singh and Balbinder Singh, the suit instituted by Pratap Singh and Lal Singh was governed by Article 142 of the Limitation Act, 1908 and was barred by limitation while Pratap Singh and Lal Singh contended that the suit was governed by Article 144 of the Limitation Act, 1908 and was not barred by limitation. The Supreme Court opined that in order for Article 142 to be applicable, Gurbinder Singh and Balbinder Singh needed to prove that they were in possession of the property initially and had been dispossessed by Pratap Singh and Lal Singh or someone through whom they claimed or alternatively, that Gurbinder Singh and Balbinder Singh had discontinued possession. According to Court, while Pratap Singh and Lal Singh were claiming the property as heirs of Raj Kaur as per the rules of succession contained in dastur-ul-amal, since it was not pleaded that Lal Singh had ever been in

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possession of the land and possession of a part of the land by Pratap Singh was not as an heir of Raj Kaur, but by way of transfer by Bakshi Singh, it could not be said that that Pratap Singh or Lal Singh had ever been in possession of the property as heirs of Raj Kaur. As a consequence, the Court held that Article 142 was not applicable to the case at hand.

36. With respect to the application of Article 144 of the Limitation Act 1908, the Court noted that the period of Limitation under Article 144 was deemed to start „when the possession of the defendant became adverse to the plaintiff". The Court noted that as per the dastur-ul-amal, upon the death of Raj Kaur on August 14, 1930, her daughters Prem Kaur and Mahan Kaur became entitled to the possession of the land. The Court opined that even if it was assumed that Prem Kaur and Mahan Kaur became absolute owners of the land upon succeeding Raj Kaur as had been contended by Gurbinder Singh and Balbinder Singh, then Bakshi Singh and Pratap Singh who were in possession of the land up till October 1938 would be in adverse possession of the land to the true owners. Thereafter, the Raja of Faridkot, who actually entered into possession in October 1938 after obtaining a decree for possession in March 1938, would be adversely in possession to the owners of the land, the surviving heir of Raj Kaur, Prem Kaur and those claiming under her; namely, Pratap Singh and Lal Singh. Mahan Kaur having died on July 13, 1938, Kehar Singh who was a transferee under the Raja of Faridkot and Gurbinder Singh and Balbinder Singh who obtained a decree for pre- emption against Kehar Singh would stand in the position of the Raja as trespassers to the possession of land by Prem Kaur and her heirs.

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Therefore, the cumulative period of adverse possession of the Raja of Faridkot, Kehar Singh, and Gurbinder Singh and Balbinder Singh could be relied upon by Gurbinder Singh and Balbinder Singh to claim adverse possession. However, the Court noted that since the possession of the Raja began in October, 1938 and the suit by Lal Singh was instituted in February, 1950, the suit not instituted beyond a period of 12 years as specified under Article 144. The Court rejected the contention of Gurbinder Singh and Balbinder Singh that even the period of possession of the land by Bakshi Singh and Pratap Singh from the death of Raj Kaur in August 1930 up till October, 1938, which was trespass against the possession of the lawful owners of the land, Prem Kaur and Mahan Kaur, ought to be included while determining whether the suit was barred by limitation under Article 144. The Court negatived the reliance placed by Gurbinder Singh and Balbinder Singh on the judgment reported as AIR 1922 Mad 59 Vennam Ramiah v. Kusru Kotamma & Ors. According to the Court, the decision in Ramiah"s case (supra) related only to cases where Article 142 of the Limitation Act was applicable, since under Article 142 the onus was on the plaintiff to prove that he had been in possession of the property within 12 years of the institution of the suit. Therefore, even if successive independent trespassers were in possession of the land, thereby excluding the possession of the Plaintiff for a period of more than 12 years, the trespass of successive unconnected independent trespassers would not help the plaintiff prove that he had possession as long as the successive trespass by the independent trespassers was continuous. The Court contrasted this position with the position of law under Article 144 of the Limitation Act, wherein the onus

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was on the defendant to prove that he had been in possession of the land for a period of 12 years prior to the institution of the suit and therefore, possession by an unconnected independent trespasser could not be relied upon by the defendant. The Court opined that the phrasing of Article 144 of the Limitation Act whereby the limitation period was deemed to start „when the possession of the defendant became adverse to the plaintiff" and the definition of the term „defendant" under section 2(4) of the Limitation Act which provided that „defendant includes any person from or through whom a defendant derives his liability to be used" clearly supported the view that the defendant could only rely upon his adverse possession or the adverse possession of someone with whom he had a jural relationship, that is, someone through whom he claims, to prove that he had been in possession of land for more than 12 years as required under Article 144. The Court opined that no such jural relationship could be said to exist between independent trespassers and therefore, the period of trespass by an independent trespasser could not be relied upon by the defendant under Article 144 of the Limitation Act. The Court opined that no jural relationship between Bakshi Singh and Pratap Singh on the one hand and the Raja of Faridkot and those claiming under him, namely Kehar Singh, Gurbinder Singh and Balbinder Singh on the other could be said to exist and therefore, they were independent trespassers. Accordingly, the Court held that the suit by Pratap Singh and Lal Singh was within time.

37. Thus, the correct answer provided is wrong and the correct answer would be option No.1 on account of the fact that in the question it is not stated that „B" acquired possession under a jural relationship with „C".

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Had the question incorporated the fact that acquisition of possession by „B" was under a jural relationship with „C", the answer would have been correct.

38. As regards the last question we find that a similarly worded question came up for consideration in a judgment of this Court reported as 188 (2012) DLT 627 (DB) Gunjan Sinha Jain vs. Registrar General, High Court of Delhi. In view of the conflicting decisions of this Court and the matter awaiting authoritative pronouncement by the Supreme Court it was held that currently the question at hand did not have a definite answer because the position in law was fluid. Option „1" and option „2" given in the instant case were the ones in said case and were held to be non definitive because the position in law was fluid. The question was therefore directed to be deleted.

39. Incorporating the reasoning by a Co-ordinate Bench of this Court concerning said question, which reasoning and decision has attained finality, we direct said question to be deleted and as per instructions two marks to be given to all candidates and if the question was attempted and wrong answer given and as a consequence „0.5" marks deducted, the said deduction be removed.

40. We therefore terminate the discussion and dispose of the petitions directing :-

(i) The answer key qua question No.3 above noted be corrected with option No.3 as the correct answer.

(ii) Question No.5 above noted be deleted with consequence flowing as above indicated.

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(iii) The answer key to question No.7 above noted be corrected with option No.1 as the correct answer.

(iv) Question No.8 above noted be deleted with consequence flowing as above indicated.

41. No costs. CM No.32525/2016 in W.P.(C) No.7863/2016 CM No.34038/2016 in W.P.(C) No.8212/2016 Stay of the ensuing written examination : Delhi Higher Judicial Service Examination-2015 is prayed for in the two captioned civil miscellaneous applications till decision is pronounced in the writ petitions. Since the writ petitions in which the civil miscellaneous applications have been filed have been decided today the two civil miscellaneous applications are disposed of as infructuous.

(PRADEEP NANDRAJOG)

JUDGE

(PRATIBHA RANI)

JUDGE

SEPTEMBER 30, 2016

Mamta/dk/skb

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